CG VYAPAM STAFF NURSE EXAM 2025

SYLLABUS WISE MCQS

PART 1 MCQS 20 MARK’S

SUBJECT- ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY, MICROBIOLOGY, FUNDAMENTAL OF NURSING, MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING, MATERNAL and CHILD HEALTH

PART 2 MCQS 20 MARK’S

SUBJECT- COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING, NUTRITION

PART 3 MCQS 20 MARK’S

SUBJECT- MENTAL HEALTH NURSING, PHYCOLOGY, SOCIOLOGY

PART 4 MCQS 20 MARK’S

SUBJECT- NURSING PROFESSIONAL TRENDS, NURSING RESEARCH, COMPUTER EDUCATION

PART 5 MCQS 20 MARK’S

SUBJECT- NURSING EDUCATION, NURSING ADMINISTRATION

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Midwifery mcqs

A nurse is assisting with the delivery of a newborn child in a delivery room. Which of the following does the nurse do after the delivery to prevent heat loss in the baby due to evaporation?
Warming the crib pad
Activating the overhead radiant warmer
Closing the room’s doors
Using a warm blanket to dry the infant

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Newborns lose heat quickly through evaporation. Immediate drying with a warm blanket prevents this.

What are the criteria for diagnosing pregnancy-induced hypertension?
20 weeks gestation, BP 120/80 mmHg
12 weeks gestation 130/88 mmHg
20 weeks gestation, BP ≥140/90 mmHg on two occasions, 6 hours apart
None

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Hypertension in pregnancy is defined after 20 weeks with BP ≥140/90 on at least two readings.

What do we mean by exclusive breastfeeding?
Infant food and breast milk
Supplying only breast milk
Ingest breast milk beforehand
Breastfeeding with water

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Exclusive breastfeeding means only breast milk (no water, food, or other liquids) for the first 6 months.

A mother reports mild, irregular abdominal cramps at 30 weeks. What is this most likely?
Braxton Hicks contractions
Preterm labour
Acidity
Anxiety

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Braxton Hicks are painless, irregular contractions preparing the uterus for labour.

What is the average length of a human pregnancy?
38–40 weeks
34–36 weeks
40–44 weeks
30–34 weeks

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Normal pregnancy lasts around 280 days or 38–40 weeks.

What is the average amount of iron required during pregnancy?
400 mg
1000 mg
1500 mg
1800 mg

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Pregnancy increases iron demand for maternal blood, placenta, and fetus.

What is the primary goal of Janani Suraksha Yojana?
Lowering neonatal and maternal mortality
Promote safe sex
Increase birth rate
Reduce communicable diseases

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: JSY promotes institutional deliveries to reduce maternal and newborn deaths.

The procedure involved in growth of a mature ovum is:
Oogenesis
Fertilisation
Gametogenesis
Spermatogenesis

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Oogenesis is the process of ovum (egg cell) development in females.

A nurse palpates the uterine fundus postpartum. First intervention?
Push uterus to expel clots
Raise patient’s legs
Massage until fundus is firm
Encourage urination

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Fundal massage prevents uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage.

Lochia serosa consists of:
Leucocytes
Lanugo
Hymen
CSF

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Lochia serosa (day 4–10 postpartum) contains serous fluid and WBCs.

Which hormone is secreted by placenta?
Estrogen
Human Placental Lactogen
hCG
Calcitonin

Correct Answer: D *(per source)*

Explanation: Usually placenta secretes hCG, estrogen, progesterone. The source indicates calcitonin.

Which antibody crosses placenta?
IgM
IgG
IgA
IgE

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: IgG provides passive immunity to the fetus.

Mechanism of IgG transfer from mother to fetus?
Phagocytosis
Pinocytosis
Erythropoiesis
Erythroblastosis

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: IgG crosses placenta via pinocytosis (cell drinking).

At 16 weeks of pregnancy, which development is seen?
Scrotum
Testes
Vernix caseosa
Lanugo

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Lanugo (fine hair) covers fetal skin around 16 weeks.

Which is not a function of placenta?
Fetal respiration
Fetal nutrition
Enzymatic
Fetal excretion

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Placenta provides respiration, nutrition, excretion – not enzyme secretion.

Which of the following measures fertility?
Crude birth rate
Infant mortality rate
Maternal mortality rate
Maternal morbidity rate

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Crude birth rate = number of births per 1000 population per year.

A baby under 28 days is called:
Neonate
Toddler
Preschooler
Pubescent

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Neonatal period = birth to 28 days.

Oral Thrush is:
Bacterial infection
Fungal infection
Viral infection
Protozoal infection

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Caused by *Candida albicans* (fungus).

Blue patches of skin pigmentation at buttocks of newborn are:
Milia
Salmon patches
Mongolian spots
Vernix caseosa

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Mongolian spots are harmless congenital skin marks.

Anterior fontanel closes by:
6–8 weeks
1–2 weeks
12–18 months
6–8 months

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Anterior fontanel usually closes between 12–18 months.

Drug used in Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA):
Frusemide
Ondosterone
Indomethacin
Haloperidol

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Indomethacin promotes closure of PDA in neonates.

Ectopia vesicae means:
Epispadiasis
Exstrophy of bladder
Phimosis
Kyphosis

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Bladder develops outside the body wall (rare defect).

BCG vaccine is administered:
Intradermally
Subcutaneously
Intramuscularly
Orally

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: BCG is given intradermally in the left upper arm.

Which has strong anti-fertility effect?
Zinc
Copper
Progesterone
Silver

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Copper-T IUD works as anti-fertility device.

Calendar method was described by:
Biting
Ogino
Wallace
Ogive

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Ogino-Knaus method is based on ovulation calculation.

Pentavalent vaccine contains:
DPT + HepB + PCV
DPT + HepB + Hib
PCV + Hib + HepB
MMR + Hib + PCV

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Pentavalent = DPT + Hepatitis B + Hib.

Mission Indradhanush launched in:
2018
2020
2016
2014

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Mission Indradhanush launched in 2014 for full immunization coverage.

Which is not a stage of true labour?
First stage
Fourth stage
Second stage
First trimester

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Labour has 3–4 stages, not related to trimester.

Which hormone is not a female hormone?
Estrogen
Progesterone
Prostaglandins
Androgen

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Androgens are male hormones.

Which antibody is present in breast milk?
IgA
IgG
IgM
IgD

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: IgA in colostrum provides mucosal protection to infants.

Preparation of breast milk is known as:
Galactopoiesis
Galactokinases
Mammogenesis
Lactogenesis

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Mammogenesis = breast development for milk secretion.

Permanent contraceptive method in females?
Condom
Vasectomy
Tubectomy
IUD

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Tubectomy is surgical female sterilization.

Which is NOT a uterine layer?
Myometrium
Endometrium
Perimetrium
Endocardium

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Endocardium is a heart layer, not uterus.

At 24 weeks of pregnancy, fundal height is:
Lower one-third point
At the level of the umbilicus
Two-thirds above umbilicus
At ensiform cartilage

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: At 24 weeks, fundus reaches umbilicus level.

Partograph should be started when:
Woman is pregnant
Labour has started
After delivery
During antenatal period

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Partograph monitors progress of labour.

Which is NOT an external female genitalia?
Labia majora
Clitoris
Vas deferens
Ovary

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Vas deferens is a male reproductive duct.

Total number of bones in female pelvis?
2
3
4
5

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Female pelvis consists of 2 innominate bones + sacrum + coccyx = 4.

Lambdoid suture is found between:
Two frontal bones
Two parietal bones
Parietal and frontal bones
Parietal and occipital bones

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: Lambdoid suture joins parietal with occipital bone.

Dysmenorrhea means:
Absence of menstruation
First menstruation
Painful menstruation
Excessive bleeding

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Dysmenorrhea = painful periods.

Major component of Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC)?
Skin-to-skin contact
Phototherapy
Blood transfusion
Nutrition

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: KMC promotes warmth, bonding, and breastfeeding via skin-to-skin care.

Anatomy MCQs

Q.No: 1 Which of the following option gives the scope of study in ‘Anatomy’?

A. Body structures and their relationships

B. Bodily functions

C. Structure and function of cells

D. Human body and its disease control mechanism

Correct Ans : A

Q.No: 2 Which developmental structure involves the nose, mouth, throat, and lungs?

A. Respiratory system

B. Digestive system

C. Nervous system

D. Circulatory system

Correct Ans : A

3. What happens to the entrance of the larynx during a specific stage of development?

A. It becomes occluded.

B. It widens.

C. It elongates.

D. It becomes constricted.

Correct Ans : A

4. Where does the trachea divide into two branches?

A. At the level of the sixth cervical vertebra

B. At the level of the fifth thoracic vertebra

C. At the level of the seventh cervical vertebra

D. At the level of the fourth thoracic vertebra

Correct Ans : B

5. How does the color of the lungs change after birth?

A. It becomes light pink

B. It becomes deep greyish

C. It becomes mottled in patches

D. It becomes black

Correct Ans : D

6. What is the approximate length of the adult heart?

A. 6 cm

B. 8 cm

C. 12 cm

D. 25 cm

Correct Ans : C

7. What is the general shape of the thorax or chest?

A. Spherical

B. Cylindrical

C. Conical

D. Cuboidal

Correct Ans : C

8. How do the pulmonary veins run in relation to the pulmonary arteries and bronchi?

A. They run parallel to the pulmonary arteries and bronchi.

B. They run independently of the pulmonary arteries and bronchi.

C. They run below the pulmonary arteries and bronchi.

D. They run above the pulmonary arteries and bronchi.

Correct Ans : C

9. What is the main function of bronchial arteries?

A. They supply blood to the kidneys.

B. They supply blood to the liver.

C. They supply blood to the lungs.

D. They supply blood to the brain.

Correct Ans : C

10. From where are the bronchial arteries derived?

A. Pulmonary arteries

B. Coronary arteries

C. Thoracic aorta or upper aortic intercostal arteries

D. Renal arteries

Correct Ans : C

11. Where does the capillary plexus supply the bronchial tubes primarily form?

A. Bronchial walls

B. Alveolar sacs

C. Pleural cavity

D. Tracheal cartilage

Correct Ans : A

12. What are the characteristic features of interstitial lung diseases?

A. Alveolar septal thickening and fibroblast proliferation

B. Airways obstruction and bronchial hyperresponsiveness

C. Pulmonary artery dilation and right heart failure

D. Pleural effusion and consolidation

Correct Ans : A

13.How does the presentation of mediastinal masses differ between adults and children?

A. Asymptomatic in adults, respiratory symptoms in children

B. Asymptomatic in both adults and children

C. Respiratory symptoms in adults, asymptomatic in children

D. Respiratory symptoms in both adults and children

Correct Ans : A

14. What symptoms can be caused by larger neurofibromas pressing on their nerve of origin?

A. Visual disturbances

B. Hearing loss

C. Muscle cramps

D. Distal paresthesia, pain, and sensory loss or weakness

Correct Ans : D

15. Which type of neurofibromas can cause radicular pain, weakness, or widespread sensory loss?

A. Cutaneous neurofibromas

B. Subcutaneous neurofibromas

C. Plexiform neurofibromas

D. Intradural neurofibromas

Correct Ans : C

16. What is an anorectal fistula?

A. A fracture in the anal canal

B. A tubelike tract with openings in the anal canal and perianal skin

C. A benign growth in the rectum

D. Rupture of anal sphincter

Correct Ans : A

17. What can MIP and MEP measurements help evaluate?

A. Lung capacity

B. Respiratory muscle weakness

C. Neurologic disorders

D. Lung volume

Correct Ans : B

18. The sniff test is used to assess?

A. Diaphragmatic strength

B. Intercoastal muscle function

C. Phrenic nerve function

D. Lung capacity

Correct Ans : A

19.Sarcoma is a type of malignant tumor. In which of the following type of parts they are found?

A. Bones and cartilages

B. Skin

C. Heart muscles

D. Nervous system

Correct Ans : A

20. Name of the tight junction that joins the surface cells along their lateral walls, near the apical surface.

A. Hemidesmosomes

B. Epithelium

C. Zonula occludent

D. Macula adherens

Correct Ans : C

21.Which of the following statement is true regarding the function of Choroid?

A. It helps to regulate the amount of light entering the eye

B. It is the vascular, pigmented layer of the eye between the retina and the sclera

C. It helps to maintain the intraocular pressure

D. It produces aqueous humor

Correct Ans : B

22. How many pairs of tubules are present in the modified cilium?

A. Eight

B. Seven

C. Nine

D. Ten

Correct Ans : C

23. Which part of an eye acts as a shock absorber?

A. Aqueous chamber

B. Anterior chamber

C. Posterior chamber

D. Vitreous body

Correct Ans : D

24. Which of the following is not the function of eyelids?

A. Cover the globe for protection.

B. Move the tears toward drainage at the medial canthus on closure.

C. To secrete tears.

D. To spread the tear film across the anterior surface of the eye.

Correct Ans : C

25.Name the condition that is caused due to thinning of the sclera and the bulging of tissues.

A. Scalera ectasis

B. Lamina cribrosa

C. Scleral spur

D. In Limbal deficiency

Correct Ans : A

26. What happens if the bulge of sclera is lined by the choroid in the equatorial region?

A. It is termed a staphyloma

B. It is termed a coloboma

C. It is termed an anophthalmos

D. It is termed a microphthalmos

Correct Ans : A

27. Hyperplasia and benign cyst are insignificant lesions of _____.

A. Cornea

B. Sclera

C. Ciliary bodies

D. Choroid

Correct Ans : C

28. Megalocornea occurs due to enlargement of the horizontal diameter of the cornea about _____________ or greater after the age of 2 years.

A. 10 mm

B. 15 mm

C. 13 mm

D. 7 mm

Correct Ans : C

29.What is the name of the u-shaped pulley liked structure present in the roof of the orbit?

A. Lacrimal gland

B. Trochlea

C. Zygomatic bone

D. Maxilla

Correct Ans : B

30. The orbital plate of the frontal bone is thin in the area that separates the orbit from the anterior _________.

A. Cranial fossa

B. Optic canal

C. Lesser wing of the sphenoid

D. Orbital plate of the frontal bone

Correct Ans : A

31.Which one is not the composition of the floor?

A. Orbital plate of the maxillary bone.

B. Orbital plate of the zygomatic bone.

C. Orbital process of the palatine bone.

D. Lesser wing of the sphenoid.

Correct Ans : D

32.Which bone separates the orbit from the middle cranial fossa?

A. The greater wing of the sphenoid

B. The lesser wing of the sphenoid

C. An orbital plate of the maxillary bone

D. An orbital plate of the frontal bone

Correct Ans : A

33. The inferior orbital margin usually is formed equally by____________.

A. Frontal and sphenoid bone

B. Maxillary and Zygomatic bone

C. Ethmoid and palatine bone

D. Palatine and lacrimal bone

Correct Ans : B

34. _____________is formed by the optic strut which extends from the lesser wing to the sphenoid body.

A. Optic foramen

B. Superior orbital fissures

C. Inferior orbital fissure

D. Annulus of Zinn

Correct Ans : A

35. The presence of space-occupying lesions within the eye can result in a decrease in _________.

A. Curvature

B. Index

C. Axial length

D. Enlarged width

Correct Ans : C

36. What is the junction of cornea and sclera called?

A. Upper punctum

B. Caruncle

C. Limbus

D. Choroid

Correct Ans : C

37. Which of the following is NOT a part of the inner sensory part of the eye?

A. Bipolar cells

B. Rods

C. Cones

D. Uvea

Correct Ans : D

38. How is the optic disc of a myopic person different from a normal sighted person?

A. Smaller

B. Larger

C. Same size

D. Darker

Correct Ans : B

39. Which of the following is also known as succedaneous dentition?

A. Primary dentition

B. Permanent teeth

C. Deciduous dentition

D. Milk teeth

Correct Ans : B

40. What is the bone of the tooth socket called?

A. Malleolus

B. Modiolus

C. Phalanges

D. Alveolus

Correct Ans : D

41. Which part of the denture comes in contact with opposing denture?

A. Occlusal surface

B. Cameo surface

C. Polishes surface

D. Impression surface

Correct Ans : A

42. Which part of the denture comes in contact with the mucosa?

A. Denture teeth

B. Denture flange

C. Denture base

D. Denture border

Correct Ans : C

43. Which of the following has 0 degrees cusp?

A. Anatomic teeth

B. Metal inserted teeth

C. Non anatomic teeth

D. Cross bite teeth

Correct Ans : C

44. Which teeth are best for eccentric jaw positions?

A. Anatomic teeth

B. Non anatomic teeth

C. Cross bite teeth

D. Semi anatomic teeth

Correct Ans : A

45. Which direction are mandibular incisor roots tapered to?

A. Buccal

B. Mesial

C. Distal

D. Palatal

Correct Ans : C

46. Which of the following cavity contains brain?

A. Cranial Cavity

B. Thoracic Cavity

C. Pelvic Cavity

D. Vertebral Cavity

Correct Ans : A

47. Which of the following is not the part of cardiovascular system of human beings?

A. Blood

B. Heart

C. Blood vessels

D. Nephrons

Correct Ans : D

48. Which of the following is the correct statement about the veins?

A. Veins always carry blood toward the heart.

B. Veins always carry blood out of heart.

C. Only the superior vena cava puts blood in the heart.

D. Only the superior vena cava puts blood out of the heart.

Correct Ans : A

49. In which of the following organ major absorption of nutrients occur in human body?

A. Liver

B. Small intestine

C. Large intestine

D. Stomach

Correct Ans : B

50. What are ‘Villi’ in digestion system?

A. These are enzymes.

B. These are hormones.

C. These are finger like structures.

D. These are lipids.

Correct Ans : C

51. Which of the following are the functional units of Kidneys?

A. Nephrons

B. Neurons

C. Brown’s capsule

D. Ducts

Correct Ans : A

52. What is the name of the area in front of the anus extending to the fourchette of the vulva in the female and to the scrotum in the male?

A. Perinium

B. Adventitia

C. Tunica albuginea

D. Lobules

Correct Ans : A

53. Which of the following is not a correct understanding about the anatomy and physiology of Human Heart?

A. It is a connective tissue

B. It is a muscle

C. It has a pumping action.

D. It has cardiac cycle of 40 seconds.

Correct Ans : B

54. Which of the following is not a part of cardiovascular system?

A. Blood

B. Circulatory pump – heart

C. Distribution network

D. Brain

Correct Ans : D

55. The heartbeat can be felt where the apex contacts the internal chest wall during systole. What is the term used for this site?

A. Point of Maximum Impulse

B. Tachycardia

C. Bradycardia

D. Point of heartbeat

Correct Ans : A

56. Which of the following option gives the name of the inner most layer of heart?

A. Epicardium

B. Pericardium

C. Myocardium

D. Endocardium

Correct Ans : D

57.Which of the following is a fibroserous conical sac structure encompassing the heart and roots of the great cardiac vessels?

A. The antrum

B. The pericardium

C. The vagus nerve

D. The peroxisome

Correct Ans : B

58. Base of pericardium is attached to which of the following?

A. Solar plexus

B. Diaphragm

C. Caecum

D. Thyroid gland

Correct Ans : B

59. The outer sac of pericardium is made up of which of the following tissues?

A. Flattened tissues

B. Squamous tissue

C. Epidermal tissue

D. Fibrous tissue

Correct Ans : D

60. Between the left pulmonary artery and subjacent pulmonary vein is a triangular fold of the serous pericardium, what is the name of this fold?

A. Vestigial fold of Marshall

B. Oblique vein of Marshall

C. Straight vein of Marshall

D. Horizontal fold of Marshall

Correct Ans : A

61. Which nerve is the main effector for cardiac functions controlled by input from the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system?

A. First cranial nerve

B. Third cranial nerve

C. Fifth cranial nerve

D. Tenth cranial nerve

Correct Ans : D

62. Specialized receptors sensitive to changes in arterial diameter are located at various strategic locations within the upper thoracic cavity and neck. What are these receptors cal?

A. Baroreceptors

B. Chemoreceptors

C. Lateral tone

D. Upper tone

Correct Ans : A

63. Which of the following drains the deoxygenated blood from the myocardium back to the right atrium?

A. Aortic valve

B. The coronary veins

C. The coronary artery

D. The aorta

Correct Ans : B

64. Which of the following represent an extraordinary degree of branching of very thin vessels?

A. Capillaries

B. Arteries

C. Nerves

D. Osteomas

Correct Ans : A

65. The area between A bands of adjacent sarcomeres is known as?

A. X band

B. I band

C. K band

D. J band

Correct Ans : B

66. The arrangement of the contractile proteins in cardiac muscle cells is similar to which of the following muscles?

A. Pennate muscle

B. Intercostal muscles

C. Skeletal muscle

D. Costal muscles

Correct Ans : C

67. The Z lines are primarily composed of which protein?

A. Fibrin

B. Myosin

C. Actin

D. Pepsin

Correct Ans : C

68. Which of the following is the first and most anterior branch from the aorta?

A. Thyroid ima

B. Brachiocephalic trunk

C. Left subclavian arteries

D. Left common carotid

Correct Ans : B

69. On occasion, there will be an artery that branches from the aortic arch, the right common carotid, or one of the subclavian arteries and supplies the thyroid gland in the midlin this variant artery called?

A. Thyroid ima

B. Sternum

C. Left carotid

D. Subclavian artery

Correct Ans : A

70. Which of the following is a part of anterior mediastinum?

A. Oesophagus

B. Thoracic duct

C. Sternopericardial ligaments

D. Descending aorta

Correct Ans : C

71. Which of the following is not a part of posterior mediastinum?

A. Descending aorta

B. Azygos system of veins

C. Thoracic duct

D. Lymphatic vessels and nodes

Correct Ans : D

72. Which of the following is an endocrine gland?

A. Pancreas

B. Lachrymal

C. Thymus

D. Mammary

Correct Ans : C

73. Left ventricular hypertrophy is seen in which leads?

A. V1-V2

B. V5–V6

C. V3-V4

D. V2-V3

Correct Ans : B

74. Lead ______will exhibit a deep S wave.

A. V100

B. V0.4

C. V202

D. V6

Correct Ans : D

75. Boundaries of thoracic outlet are –

A. Posteriorly: medial border of the first ribs, anteriorly: superior border of the manubrium sterni, on each side: first thoracic vertebra.

B. Posteriorly: first thoracic vertebra, on each side: medial border of the first ribs, anteriorly: superior border of the manubrium sterni.

C. Posteriorly: first thoracic vertebra, on each side: medial border of the first ribs, anteriorly: superior border of the manubrium sterni.

D. Anteriorly: first thoracic vertebra, each side; the medial border of the first ribs, anteriorly: superior border of the manubrium sterni.

Correct Ans : C

76. Angle of Louis is formed at –

A. Manubriosternal joint

B. Sternoclavicular (SC joint)

C. Sternocostal joint

D. Glenohumeral joint

Correct Ans : A

77. Total no. of pairs of thoracic spinal nerves are –

A. 31 pairs

B. 12 pairs

C. 8 pairs

D. 14 pairs

Correct Ans : B

78. Which of the following nerves innervates the mediastinal pleura?

A. Vagus

B. Phrenic

C. Intercostal

D. Splanchnic

Correct Ans : B

79. The right lung is divided into superior, middle and inferior lobes by its

A. one oblique (major) and two horizontal (minor) fissures

B. one oblique (major) and one horizontal (minor) fissures

C. two oblique (major) and one horizontal (minor) fissures

D. two oblique (major) and two horizontal (minor) fissures

Correct Ans : B

80. Which one of the following is not the feature of the posterior end of first rib –

A. The head is small and rounded. It articulates with the body of first thoracic vertebra.

B. The neck is rounded directed laterally, upwards and backwards.

C. The tubercle is large. It coincides with the angle of the rib. It articulates with the transverse process of first thoracic vertebra to form the costotransverse jo

D. Neck is flat and directed medially, upwards and anteriorly.

Correct Ans : B

81. Abnormal communication between the trachea and the oesophagus is known as –

A. Tracheoesophageal fistula

B. Obstetric fistula

C. Arteriovenous fistula

D. Radio cephalic fistula

Correct Ans : A

82.Alveolar epithelial cells also called:

A. Hepatocytes

B. Osteocytes

C. Pneumocystes

D. Cardiomyocytes

Correct Ans : C

83.First heart sound is produced due to –

A. Opening of atrioventricular valves

B. Closure of atrioventricular valves

C. Opening of semilunar valves

D. Closing of semilunar valves

Correct Ans : B

84.Neuroglial cells includes –

A. Astrocytes and oligodendrocytes

B. Osteocytes and osteoblasts

C. Chondrocytes and chondroblasts

D. Tenocytes and tenoblasts

Correct Ans : A

85. Anterior relations of descending aorta are all, except

A. Root of right lung

B. Pericardium and heart

C. Esophagus in the lower part

D. Diaphragm

Correct Ans : A

86. Right side relations of thoracic part of oesophagus are all, except:

A. Right lung and pleura

B. Azygos vein

C. Right vagus

D. Left vagus

Correct Ans : D

87.Autonomic nervous system includes –

A. Brain

B. Spinal cord

C. Central nervous system

D. Sympathetic and parasympathetic

Correct Ans : D

88. Which muscle arises from the upper two thirds of the lateral supracondylar ridge of humerus?

A. Brachioradialis

B. Anconeus

C. Superficial extensor muscles

D. Triceps brachii

Correct Ans : A

89. Anconeus muscle is related to

A. Shoulder joint

B. Knee joint

C. Elbow joint

D. Hip joint

Correct Ans : C

90. Volkmann`s ischemic contracture occurs due to

A. Supracondylar fracture of humerus

B. Fracture of radius

C. Fracture of ulna

D. Fracture of clavicle

Correct Ans : A

91. Which of the following bones is the first one to start ossification?

A. Ulna

B. Scapula

C. Clavicle

D. Humerus

Correct Ans : C

92. Medial plantar nerve supplies all muscles, except:

A. Abductor hallucis

B. Adductor hallucis

C. Flexor digitorum brevis

D. Flexor hallucis brevis

Correct Ans : A

93. How many plantar interossei are present in the sole?

A. Two

B. Three

C. Four

D. Five

Correct Ans : B

94. Which Sphincter is not found in GI tract?

A. Cardiac sphincter

B. Pyloric sphincter

C. Ileocecal sphincter

D. Gastrin

Correct Ans : D

95. Which of the following does not come under Secondary lymphoid organs?

A. Lymph nodes

B. Spleen

C. MALT (Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue located in the respiratory tract and GIT).